can you inform me if i have understood this paragraph on banks and credit and mortgages right ?

Query by oops: can you tell me if i have understood this paragraph on banks and credit and mortgages right ?
PLEASE Study THE PARA Very first

SIVs utilized brief-term industrial paper, sold at low interest prices, to buy longer-term mortgage-backed securities and other instruments with higher prices of return. With the seizure of the credit markets, many SIVs had trouble selling new commercial paper to replace upcoming obligations on older paper. The collapse in sub-prime mortgages and in the commercial paper that supported them has basically adjusted the value of the principal to make up for the outsized returns that these investors got more than the past five years.

The money that banks owe on their commercial paper didn’t modify. These banks are going to supply more industrial paper to purchase mortgage assets in other words, they are going to borrow more quick-term income in order to purchase lengthy-term assets from themselves! That is, if they can borrow the funds in the 1st spot. One particular of the casualties in the rout was the industrial paper marketplace investors are realizing that it backs a lot of lousy mortgage debt, so they are backing away from investing in the industrial paper that backs the mortgages.

NOW – IS MY UNDERSTANDING Appropriate ?

Borrowed cash – The SIVs sold brief-term commercial paper at low prices of interest – so they borrowed cash for a ST at a low IR. They did this routinely to maintain receiving funds.

Lent money – The banks told the folks that we will give you income – mortgage your house at 12 % IR. ( Or the banks purchased mortgage investments from investors.) The banks took the less expensive loans from CP and invested it in longer term mortgage-backed securities and other instruments with greater prices of return.

But when the market collapsed, the value of the home collapsed, borrowers could not pay loans and higher IR, and the bank was left with a property which was not worth 25% of the loan they had provided. Oversized interest prices frequently imply that the investment is in reality sucking money out of principal. Occasionally investors can get away with the gambit for awhile, but sooner or later somebody pays the bill.

Secondly, with the seizure of the credit markets, a lot of SIVs had difficulty selling new commercial paper to replace upcoming obligations on older paper.

Thirdly, The income that banks owe on their commercial paper didn’t modify. Sounds like problems.

Now the banks have paid Rs 100 to the borrower, in return they have a house which is worth Rs 20. How do the banks cover the balance Rs 70 ? These banks are going to offer you far more commercial paper ( and take ST loans at low IR ) to buy mortgage assets in other words, they are going to borrow much more short-term cash at low IR in order to purchase extended-term assets from themselves!

That is, if they can borrow the money in the initial place. A single of the casualties in the rout was the industrial paper market place investors are realizing that it backs a lot of lousy mortgage debt, so they are backing away from investing in the commercial paper that backs the mortgages.

Greatest answer:

Answer by BobWang
An important aspect is the total lack of faith in SIVs, CDOs, and the agencies that purport to price them.

[Quote]
Most of these are mortgage-primarily based securitizations, such as CDOs. The cause for the common gun-shyness is since no-one particular knows what’s in them. This point was produced final Thursday evening on CNBC, where Thomas Patrick presented a strategy to take the performing mortgages out of CDOs and SIVs at par. It was shot down by CNBC reporter Charlie Gasparino on the grounds that performing mortgages might not execute at all in the future. Due to the fact no-one knows what’s in these securitizations, they’re not actually buyable. This impression explains why mortgage-rooted CDOs and SIVs are promoting way under what their present money flow indicates, a disparity that Mr. Patrick’s program depends on.
[/Quote]

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Why did the Federal Government sue the Wall Street banks that sold Fannie and Freddie bad mortgages?

Question by ideogenetic: Why did the Federal Government sue the Wall Street banks that sold Fannie and Freddie bad mortgages?
Shouldn’t the “buyer beware”* or is there a role for regulation to prevent criminal economic activity in the debt securitization markets that lead to catastrophic financial collapses?

* Since S&P had ‘AAA’ ratings on the junk paper, how would the buyer know?
For those who missed it:
“Federal Regulators Sue Big Banks Over Mortgages”
http://www.nytimes.com/2011/09/03/business/bank-suits-over-mortgages-are-filed.html

Best answer:

Answer by TheOnlyBeldin
Because Barney won’t let them go after the true culprit: Fannie and Freddie themselves.

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Q&A: A reason for securitizing mortgages is to allow a bank to do what?

Question by foxtrot: A reason for securitizing mortgages is to allow a bank to do what?

Best answer:

Answer by ThatGuy
Securitizing mortgages allows banks to a) minimize risk exposure b) take advantage of lower capital requirements.

a) When a bank makes a loan, it is exposed to the risk that the borrower may default. However, through the process of securitization the bank sells the loan to what is called a ‘conduit’ (likely for price greater than the principal of the loan, but less then the overall expected value after the loan has been paid), which then packages the loan with others to form a ‘bond.’ In this process the bank has profited from the loan but is not exposed to any risk attributed to the borrower.

b) Banks are held to certain capital requirements, i.e. they have to hold a certain level of capital to support their loans. However, they have to hold less capital to back up investments in securities. Hence, a general strategy is to make a loan, securitize it, then buy into a senior tranche of the new security. Thus the bank has transformed a loan into a less risky asset (the bond pools risk) with which it needs to hold less capital against.

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Explain how AAA assets may be created from pools of risky mortgages?

Question by : Explain how AAA assets may be created from pools of risky mortgages?
Explain how AAA assets may be created from pools of risky
mortgages each of which individually may be rated as riskier than
AAA. When so many AAA securities defaulted was it because the rat-
ing agencies were corrupt, incompetent or unlucky? To what extent
was this process of the creation of structured products responsible
for the 2007 …financial crisis?

Best answer:

Answer by I didn’t do it!
The process is known as ‘credit enhancement’. There are various ways how this can be achieved.

For example, a Company A whose overall credit rating is BB sells its assets to a special purpose vehicle (SPV). The SPV funds the purchase of these assets by issuing asset backed securities to investors. The investors rely on the performance of the particular assets in the SPV and not on the performance of Company A; and this is a major difference: if the transaction is properly structured, a bankruptcy of Company A will not interfere with the payments of the assets, now isolated from the BB rated company. A rating agency, for example Standard & Poors, rate the ability of the company to pay their debt. If the assets are held in an SPV, isolated from Company A with its BB rating, the SPV can have a higher rating if the assets are considered good quality. If this is not sufficient, a bank may issue some form of guarantee, for example a letter of credit issued by a bank for a fee, which guarantees the payment.

Another argument for risk reduction goes as follows: diversifying the risks by pooling and repackaging them into a series of bonds, would reduce the overall risk. For example, the total potential loss amount is higher if you are exposed to the mortgage of one borrower, than if you are exposed to two or more borrowers for the same amount: it is less likely that all different borrowers default at the same time.

However, there is one major flaw, among others, in this concept, which proved to be fatal in the recent financial crises: the buyers of securitized debt instruments do no longer have transparency and understanding of the underlying risks of the instrument that they hold. A holder of a bond which is the result of securitized credit card receivables, for example, does not need to and cannot have a complete understanding of the credit quality of the individual credit card debt that makes up the bond. All he relies on is an abstract mathematical concept of aggregate default probability, which is partly the result of a rating issued by a rating agency exposed to a potential conflict of interest: the rating agencies had an incenticve to issue high ratings because they were paid by the issuer (risk of moral hazard!).

In summary: in theory, securitization of credit should result in a reduction in the overall risk through diversification, compared to the individual components of the asset pool. However, this risk reduction was more than offset through the risk of mispricing the individual risk component and the risk of moral hazard in the origination of these instruments. All this made such instruments much more vulnerable to external shocks, such as an interest rate hike, which ultimately led to the recent collapse of the financial markets.

The securitization of credit and the mispricing of the risks did significantly contribute to the financial crisis, although on their own they would not have been sufficient; other ingredients, such as regulatory imprudence or massive capital inflows into the economy were necessary to create a financial crisis of such a magnitude.

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True or False? Securitizations of financial claims and securities such as mortgages have reduced the risk?

Question by answerman: True or False? Securitizations of financial claims and securities such as mortgages have reduced the risk?
facing international investors.

Best answer:

Answer by meg
That is what the wall street bank believed and the credit rating agencies agreed. They thought by packaging mortgages from different regions of the country they could reduce the standard deviation in the return , and that is how risk is measured in finance. They assumed that each real estate market was and independent, that is the price movements in Florida and California were not correlated, What was missing from the calculations was the catastrophic loses that would result if home price fell in all markets at the same time, one outlier like that can cause a big increase the standard deviation even if it has a small probably.

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Q&A: Can someone explain in layman’s terms, what securitization of mortgages is/means?

Question by ee: Can someone explain in layman’s terms, what securitization of mortgages is/means?
From what I’ve read banks supposedly ‘pooled’ their mortgages and loans and sold them to others at a profit. I don’t understand why others would pay them at a rate where they make a profit. I don’t understand why ‘pooling’ mortgages results in a value that results in a profit being made when it is sold. Why not just keep them, why sell them in the first pladce?
Any help would be really appreciated, if not answers then even links to other websites.

Best answer:

Answer by Ju
Sorry i know little about mortgages ,nothing to help you,very sorry.

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When and how did the Clinton administration allow for the securitization of subprime mortgages?

Question by ortisthetortoise: When and how did the Clinton administration allow for the securitization of subprime mortgages?
Please cite sources (specific legislation, executive order, etc. – not just “CRA changes in 1995”)
I can’t seem to find these “CRA changes of 1995” in any law or order. Trying to figure out if they are fact or folklore
….changes specific to subprime securitization that is…

Best answer:

Answer by rhsaunders
It didn’t; securitization has been legal from the beginning. Which did not mean that it was smart, or that there were mechanisms in place to appropriately value such securities.

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Q&A: Why a few mortgages in a package of mortgages can make the package worthless?

Question by Charles D: Why a few mortgages in a package of mortgages can make the package worthless?
Last night on “60 Minutes,” the reporter stated that one guy made a lot of money on failing securitizations of mortgages b/c he realized that if just a few mortgages failed, the whole security would be worthless. This is one part of the financial mess I never quite understood–or if I did, I’ve forgotten the explanation.

TIA

Best answer:

Answer by d3
The reason they can be worthless is because they are backing loans on homes that are in default. Some of these loan amounts are higher than the value of the home. Basically the value of a loan with negative equity that is in default is 0. Think of these like savings bond, how much would that bond be worth if it is no longer paying any divedents and the company that backs it is going out of business.

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Why do people continue to think the banks were forced to create bad mortgages?

Question by Change Now: Why do people continue to think the banks were forced to create bad mortgages?
This is the most ignorant statement I hear people make on this post.

The banks were not forced to make bad loans. They did it on their own free will because of the creative financing technique called securitization.

If they are talking about CRA, that was a very minor part of the overall picture.

Best answer:

Answer by DAR
THe CRA was a key part of the picture, actually. And as for the rest, it is the federal reserve fixing interest rates so low the resulting free money to wall street had to find a bubble to build. The CRA and Fannie Freddie guarantees just guaranteed that that bubble would be in housing.

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Is the Clinton administration to allow the securitization of subprime mortgages? If so, how?

issue by ortisthetortoise : Is the Clinton administration to allow the securitization of subprime mortgages? If so, how?
I can not find anything specific to the securitization of subprime mortgages in the “CRA 1995 changes” that everyone parle.Essayer to understand whether this accusation is made or folklore.Y there a specific law or order Executive which refers to this Best answer:

response by Chris J
http://www.miscellanynews.com/opinions/don_t_blame_the_guiltless_for_economic_crisis

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